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SOLVED: (1 point) Take the Laplace transform of the IVP d2ydt2+k2y=e−1t,y (0)=0,y′(0)=0d2ydt2+k2y=e−1t,y(0)=0,y′(0)=0 Use YY for the Laplace transform of yy, (not Y(s)Y(s)). = So Y=Y= 11 —————————– == ———————————– s+1s+1 ++ ss++ ————————————————————–
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